What is so unusual about a party granting a loan to a board member, which has of course since been repaid, that one would consider this to be embezzlement?
What I still don’t understand is that for years I have been giving money to the homeless party, so much so that in 2010 we actually applied for a loan from them because we temporarily needed EUR 6,000 more than we had at the time to pay for the financial secretary’s teeth.
Which unfortunately were never successfully produced anyway.
And the following year, the amount was transferred back to the party from the chairman’s pension. So that by 2011, the party had its money back in its hands.
So for a year the money didn’t go to donations to the party, which is what I normally do, but as loan repayments.
And since then the claim has been maintained that there was embezzlement. Not a single party member knows anything about it, but a whole bunch of bullies on the web do.
What I don’t understand:
How is this embezzlement if a party lends money and then gets it back?
Or is this just pure bullying?
